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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic
Details

Topic 1

AI and Automation: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Operations Managers and addresses the use of AI and automation in delivering IT systems and applications that align with user needs. It ensures that software releases meet quality standards, are delivered on time, and stay within budget, using modern tools and intelligent technologies.

Topic 2

Service Design: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Release Managers and covers the principles and practices involved in designing services and products that are practical, useful, and aligned with stakeholder expectations. It focuses on ensuring that services are designed in a way that they can be effectively delivered and supported by the organization and its partners.

Topic 3

Change: This section of the exam measures the skills of DevOps Engineers and focuses on how to manage and control changes within IT environments. It includes planning, executing, monitoring, and communicating changes to ensure minimal disruption while keeping stakeholders informed about the progress and impact of changes.

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q10-Q15):

NEW QUESTION # 10
What is MOST LIKELY to affect how significantly an organization's release management activities are dependent on partners and suppliers?

A. The maturity of the release management practice
B. The source of the organization's products and technology solutions
C. The amount of automation in the release management practice
D. The knowledge level of the organization's users

Answer: B

Explanation:
The dependency on partners and suppliers in release management is influenced by the extent to which an organization relies on external products or services. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document explains:"The source of the organization's products and technology solutions significantly affects the dependency on partners and suppliers, as reliance on externalsoftware, hardware, or services increases the need for coordination during releases"(Section 3.4).
* Option A (The knowledge level of users) impacts user adoption but not the dependency on suppliers for release activities.
* Option B (The maturity of the practice) affects internal efficiency, not the structural dependency on external parties.
* Option C (The amount of automation) influences how releases are executed but doesn't determine the dependency on suppliers.
* Option D (The source of products and technology solutions) directly determines how much the organization relies on external parties, affecting release management dependency.
The correct answer is D, as the source of technology solutions most significantly impacts supplier dependency.

NEW QUESTION # 11
A service owner is initiating the release planning and coordination process for a complex project. What is an example of the FIRST activity that the service owner should undertake in this instance?

A. Check that an automated notification has been sent to stakeholders
B. Select a release model that fits with the types of changes to be included in the release
C. Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate for the particular release under consideration
D. Test the service components and take remedial action as necessary

Answer: B

Explanation:
The release planning and coordination process begins with defining the approach for the release. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"The first step in release planning and coordination is to select an appropriate release model that fits the types of changes to be included in the release. This ensures that the release approach aligns with the nature and complexity of the changes"(Section 3.2.1).
* Option A (Test the service components) is part of the release execution or testing phase, not the first step in planning.
* Option B (Ensure that the release procedures are appropriate) is a subsequent step after selecting the model, to confirm procedural alignment.
* Option C (Select a release model) is the first activity, as it sets the foundation for how the release will be structured and managed, especially for a complex project.
* Option D (Check that an automated notification has been sent) occurs later, during the communication phase of the release process.
The correct answer is C, as selecting the release model is the initial step in release planning.

NEW QUESTION # 12
A release manager has noticed that the organization has many standardized services provided to international organizations. Which aspect of release management will this situation directly affect?

A. The release models
B. Continuous integration
C. Continuous delivery
D. The release plans

Answer: A

Explanation:
Standardized services provided to international organizations imply a need for consistency andscalability in how releases are managed across diverse contexts. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document explains that release models are used to standardize the approach to releases:"Release models define the structure, contents, and schedule of releases... They ensure consistent and repeatable processes, which is particularly important for organizations with standardized services"(Section 3.2.2).
* Option A (The release plans) refers to specific plans for individual releases, which may be affected indirectly but are not the primary aspect impacted by standardization needs.
* Option B (Continuous integration) and Option C (Continuous delivery) are development practices that may interact with release management but are not directly affected by the need for standardization across international services.
* Option D (The release models) is directly affected, as standardized services require well-defined release models to ensure consistency, repeatability, and scalability across international contexts.
The situation directly impacts the design and application of release models to accommodate standardized services globally. Thus, the correct answer is D.

NEW QUESTION # 13
A service provider is conducting a capability assessment of the release management practice. It has been found that although the practice's performance is regularly reported and reviewed, most recommendations based on the reports are never implemented. What is the MAXIMUM capability level that could be given to the release management practice?

A. Level 5
B. Level 3
C. Level 2
D. Level 4

Answer: C

Explanation:
The ITIL capability model assesses practices based on their maturity and ability to improve. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument outlines the capability levels:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is planned and tracked, with performance regularly reported. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and the ability to improve based on feedback. If recommendations from performance reviews are not implemented, the practice cannot achieve Level 3"(Section 5.2).
* The scenario indicates that performance is reported and reviewed (meeting Level 2 requirements), but recommendations are not implemented, meaning there's no improvement or standardization beyond basic management.
* Level 3 requires consistent improvement and standardization, which is not met due to the lack of implementation.
* Levels 4 (Quantitatively Managed) and 5 (Optimizing) require even higher maturity, including data- driven improvements and continuous optimization, which are not applicable here.
The maximum capability level is A (Level 2), as the practice is managed but not improving.

NEW QUESTION # 14
A service provider is receiving poor feedback from customers about releases of updates to a software product.
A review has shown that releases are often delayed or have to be repeated due to a lack of information about their impact on business processes and on other IT systems. The service provider is reviewing the value streams involving the software releases. Which step of the value stream analysis should the service provider use to understand the required information and dependencies?

A. Identifying the workflow steps
B. Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map
C. Creating a 'to be' value stream map
D. Identifying the scope of the value stream analysis

Answer: B

Explanation:
Value stream analysis in ITIL 4 helps identify inefficiencies and dependencies in processes like release management. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument notes:"Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map allows organizations to understand the current state, including dependencies and impacts on business processes and IT systems, which can reveal gaps in information that lead to delays or failures" (Section 4.3).
* Option A (Creating a 'to be' value stream map) focuses on designing the future state, which comes after understanding the current state.
* Option B (Reflecting on the 'as is' value stream map) is the correct step to understand current impacts and dependencies, identifying the root cause of delays and repeats.
* Option C (Identifying the scope of the value stream analysis) is an initial step but doesn't directly address understanding impacts.
* Option D (Identifying the workflow steps) is part of mapping but doesn't emphasize reflection on impacts and dependencies.
The correct answer is B, as reflecting on the current value stream map helps uncover the missing information about impacts.

NEW QUESTION # 15
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